Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 16.06.2025 12:18
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Is the Chinese economy currently collapsing? If not, what could potentially cause it to collapse?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
When was the last time you had sex with someone much older than yourself?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.